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Is a .67xOpenR (less 3-Bets) to .75OpenR Calling Range Written in Stone?


I am hoping someone can point out the error in my logic. I am running a matrix analysis of the equity of various hands versus percentage ranges, basically the top 110 hands (67% of possible hands) versus 5%-45% Opening Ranges in incremental increases of five percentage points. For example, versus an opening range of 20% (Std MP), 40% of hands have a greater than 33% equity and less than 50% (potential 3-Bet hands/50%+). If H gets pot odds of 2 to 1, action only has to succeed 33% of the time. A call usually gets much better pot odds than 2 to 1. So, why can't H call a 40% range v. a 20% open raising range? E.g., Q2s is 35% v. 20% opening range but well outside the standard 67%/75% calling range, which would be restricted to 13-15% of hands, AA-55, AKs-A7s, A5s, KQs-K9s, QJs-QTs, JTs, AKo-ATo, KQo-KJo, at most. Thanks.


  • keithdunlapk

    I think I figured it out as soon as I typed the question. My pot odds calculation is wrong. But the general question still exists, even if H needs 42/43% equity to call. Resulting range is still larger than standard calling ranges. (I think.)

  • JasonJiuJitsu

    First off, Keith, nothing is "written in stone." If I'm reading your question right, your asking why not call with Q2s type hands versus 3-bet? The simple answer is: reverse implied odds. Versus an EP raise, how good are you if the flop comes Q high? I'm no pro, but 3betting IP is player and game dependent.

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