I am hoping someone can point out the error in my logic. I am running a matrix analysis of the equity of various hands versus percentage ranges, basically the top 110 hands (67% of possible hands) versus 5%-45% Opening Ranges in incremental increases of five percentage points. For example, versus an opening range of 20% (Std MP), 40% of hands have a greater than 33% equity and less than 50% (potential 3-Bet hands/50%+). If H gets pot odds of 2 to 1, action only has to succeed 33% of the time. A call usually gets much better pot odds than 2 to 1. So, why can't H call a 40% range v. a 20% open raising range? E.g., Q2s is 35% v. 20% opening range but well outside the standard 67%/75% calling range, which would be restricted to 13-15% of hands, AA-55, AKs-A7s, A5s, KQs-K9s, QJs-QTs, JTs, AKo-ATo, KQo-KJo, at most. Thanks.
It looks like you're new here. If you want to get involved, click one of these buttons!
I think I figured it out as soon as I typed the question. My pot odds calculation is wrong. But the general question still exists, even if H needs 42/43% equity to call. Resulting range is still larger than standard calling ranges. (I think.)
First off, Keith, nothing is "written in stone." If I'm reading your question right, your asking why not call with Q2s type hands versus 3-bet? The simple answer is: reverse implied odds. Versus an EP raise, how good are you if the flop comes Q high? I'm no pro, but 3betting IP is player and game dependent.