This is a live 2-5 hand from Vegas trip. Effective stacks about $800. Villain had lost a big pot, bought back in for $500 and won a pot. I had been at table for 30 minutes was sitting pretty much at original buy in. Villain said he only had an hour or so left and intended to play. Had been very active and was somewhere between LAG and LAD (loose and drunk).
I open A10 suited from cutoff to $20 which was standard raise. Villain on button is only caller. Flop comes 10 8 2 with two of a suit (not mine). I continue for $30 and he without any hesitation fires two black chips into pot. I say 'that's a huge bet for a set.' He says "I have a pair". Given his prior play, I put him on a one pair hand as he said, while knowing he could be trying to get me to Hero Play against a set. I also thought naked draw was possible. I heavily weighted naked draw and one pair hands with random kickers. I put two pairs into set category and considered them unlikely. Top top is huge fave against his one pair hands, 2-1ish against naked draws and slight dog to pair plus draw combos.
Decided to try to get paid and shoved. I thought his range was way too wide to pass up opportunity to win big pot against him before he spewed all his buy ins. Didn't think calling an overbet like that would help as he would bomb turn anyway and I would be making same decision though could fold to a scare card that I believed hit him.
Did I define range well enough to make this a 'read play'? Expanded concept is playing big pots with small pot hands against tilted or drunk aggressive players. That's to me is the real question as to whether I made correct move. Would post this question regardless of result, which I gave away in title.